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Q.1
WBCS Prelims 2023
Which of the following diseases is autosomal?
A. Haemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Colour blindness
D. All of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in hemoglobin genes on chromosomes 11 and 16.
Distractor Analysis: Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder affecting blood clotting factors. Colour blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder affecting cone photoreceptors. 'All of the above' is incorrect because only thalassemia fits the autosomal inheritance pattern.
Takeaway: Common X-linked disorders include hemophilia, color blindness, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and fragile X syndrome.
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Q.2
WBCS Prelims 2022
Phytophthora palmivora is a
A. bio-pesticide
B. bio-insecticide
C. mycoherbicide
D. first bio-herbicide
Explanation
Why Correct: Phytophthora palmivora is a fungal pathogen developed as a mycoherbicide to control milkweed vine in citrus crops.
Distractor Analysis: Bio-pesticide is a general term for biological pest control agents; bio-insecticides specifically target insects; first bio-herbicide describes its historical significance but not its functional category.
Takeaway: Mycoherbicides use fungal pathogens for weed control, while bio-insecticides use bacteria like Bacillus thuringiensis against insects.
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Q.3
WBCS Prelims 2022
‘ELISA’ test is employed to diagnose
A. Polio Virus
B. AIDS antibodies
C. Tuberculosis
D. Cancer
Explanation
Why Correct: ELISA detects HIV antibodies in blood serum, serving as the primary screening test for AIDS diagnosis.
Distractor Analysis: Polio diagnosis relies on viral culture or PCR; tuberculosis uses sputum smear, culture, or molecular tests; cancer diagnosis requires biopsy, imaging, and tumor marker tests.
Takeaway: ELISA detects antigen-antibody reactions using enzyme-linked indicators, making it valuable for infectious disease antibody screening.
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Q.4
WBCS Prelims 2021
According to WHO, the official name of the virus responsible for Covid-19 disease is
A. SARS-CoV-2
B. Covid-19
C. nCovid-19
D. Corona Virus
Explanation
Why Correct: The World Health Organization designated SARS-CoV-2 (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2) as the official name of the virus that causes COVID-19 disease.
Distractor Analysis: COVID-19 is the name of the disease caused by the virus, not the virus itself. nCovid-19 was an informal term used early in the pandemic before official naming. Corona Virus refers to the broader family of coronaviruses that includes SARS-CoV-2, MERS-CoV, and others.
Takeaway: WHO announced the official names on February 11, 2020: COVID-19 for the disease and SARS-CoV-2 for the virus, following guidelines to avoid stigma and geographic references.
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Q.5
WBCS Prelims 2020
Excess fluoride in drinking water causes
A. Lung disease
B. Intestinal Infection
C. Fluorosis
D. Rickets
Explanation
Why Correct: Excess fluoride causes fluorosis, a condition characterized by dental mottling and skeletal deformities from fluoride accumulation in bones and teeth.
Distractor Analysis: Lung disease typically results from air pollution or smoking, not water contaminants. Intestinal infections come from pathogens like bacteria or viruses in contaminated water. Rickets stems from vitamin D deficiency, not fluoride exposure.
Takeaway: Fluoride levels above 1.5 mg/L in drinking water pose health risks, while optimal levels (0.5–1.0 mg/L) prevent dental caries.
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Q.6
WBCS Prelims 2017
What is a bacteriophage
A. A virus
B. A bacterium growing in artificial nutrient medium
C. A fungus causing disease
D. A phagocytic protozoa
Explanation
Why Correct: Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect and replicate within bacterial cells, using them as hosts.
Distractor Analysis: Bacteria growing in artificial nutrient medium refers to bacterial cultures. Fungi causing disease are pathogenic fungi like Candida or Aspergillus. Phagocytic protozoa are single-celled organisms like amoebae that engulf food particles.
Takeaway: Bacteriophages have two life cycles: lytic (destroys host cell) and lysogenic (integrates into host genome).
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Q.7
WBCS Prelims 2017
The well-known antibiotic penicillin is obtained from this plant group:
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Lichen
D. Angiosperm
Explanation
Why Correct: Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 from the fungus Penicillium rubens (originally identified as Penicillium notatum), which belongs to the Fungi kingdom.
Distractor Analysis: Algae are photosynthetic aquatic organisms like seaweed. Lichens are symbiotic associations between fungi and algae or cyanobacteria. Angiosperms are flowering plants that produce seeds enclosed in fruits.
Takeaway: Other important antibiotics from fungi include griseofulvin (from Penicillium griseofulvum) and cephalosporins (from Acremonium species).
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Q.8
WBCS Prelims 2016
A carcinoma is a cancer originating from :
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nerve tissue
Explanation
Why Correct: Carcinomas are malignant tumors that arise from epithelial cells, which line body surfaces, glands, and internal organs.
Distractor Analysis: Connective tissue cancers are sarcomas, muscular tissue cancers are myosarcomas, and nerve tissue cancers are gliomas or neuroblastomas.
Takeaway: Sarcomas originate from mesenchymal tissues like bone, cartilage, fat, and muscle.
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Q.9
WBCS Prelims 2015
Cerebral Malaria is caused by
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Plasmodium falciparum causes cerebral malaria through sequestration of infected red blood cells in brain capillaries, leading to severe neurological complications.
Distractor Analysis: Plasmodium vivax causes benign tertian malaria with milder symptoms. Plasmodium malariae causes quartan malaria with a longer 72-hour fever cycle. None of the above is incorrect because Plasmodium falciparum is specifically responsible for cerebral malaria.
Takeaway: Plasmodium ovale causes ovale malaria with a 48-hour fever cycle similar to P. vivax but with distinctive oval-shaped red blood cells.
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Q.10
WBCS Prelims 2014
Which one of the following is a protein deficiency disease ?
A. Pellagra
B. Ricket
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Retinoblastoma
Explanation
Why Correct: Kwashiorkor is a severe protein deficiency disease characterized by edema (fluid retention), fatty liver, and skin lesions, typically affecting children after weaning.
Distractor Analysis: Pellagra results from niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency and causes dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Rickets develops from vitamin D deficiency and leads to bone softening and deformities. Retinoblastoma is a rare genetic eye cancer caused by mutations in the RB1 gene, not nutritional deficiency.
Takeaway: Marasmus is another severe malnutrition disease caused by overall calorie and protein deficiency, presenting with severe wasting but without edema.
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Q.11
WBCS Prelims 2014
Which disease is caused by fungus ?
A. Polio
B. Malaria
C. Dermatitis
D. Cholera
Explanation
Why Correct: Among the given options, dermatitis can include fungal infections like ringworm (tinea) and athlete's foot, though it is not exclusively fungal.
Distractor Analysis: Polio is a viral disease caused by poliovirus that attacks the nervous system. Malaria is a parasitic disease transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes carrying Plasmodium parasites. Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by Vibrio cholerae that produces severe diarrhea and dehydration.
Takeaway: Common fungal diseases include candidiasis (yeast infection), aspergillosis (lung infection), and histoplasmosis (respiratory disease from soil fungi).
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Q.12
WBCS Prelims 2014
AIDS is caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Protozoa
D. Helminth
Explanation
Why Correct: AIDS results from infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a retrovirus that destroys CD4+ T cells.
Distractor Analysis: Bacteria cause diseases like tuberculosis and cholera. Protozoa cause malaria and amoebiasis. Helminths cause worm infections like ascariasis and filariasis.
Takeaway: HIV transmission occurs through blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk, not casual contact.
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Q.13
WBCS Prelims 2012
Adult Filaria worms live in human
A. Blood
B. Lymphatics
C. Liver
D. Intestine
Explanation
Why Correct: Adult filarial worms (Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi) reside in lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes, causing lymphatic filariasis.
Distractor Analysis: Blood contains microfilariae (larval stage) but not adult worms. Liver hosts parasites like liver flukes and some protozoa. Intestine harbors parasites like roundworms, tapeworms, and hookworms.
Takeaway: Filariasis transmission occurs through mosquito bites (Culex, Anopheles, Aedes), and chronic infection leads to elephantiasis due to lymphatic obstruction.
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Q.14
WBCS Prelims 2012
Which one of the following is a viral disease ?
A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Giardiasis
C. Encephalitis
D. Oriental sore
Explanation
Why Correct: Encephalitis is inflammation of brain tissue most commonly caused by viruses like Japanese encephalitis virus, herpes simplex virus, or West Nile virus.
Distractor Analysis: Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) is a parasitic disease caused by Trypanosoma protozoa transmitted by tsetse flies. Giardiasis is an intestinal infection caused by Giardia lamblia protozoa. Oriental sore (cutaneous leishmaniasis) is a skin disease caused by Leishmania parasites transmitted by sandflies.
Takeaway: Common viral diseases include influenza, rabies, dengue, and COVID-19, while bacterial diseases include tuberculosis, typhoid, and cholera, and parasitic diseases include malaria, amoebiasis, and filariasis.
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Q.15
WBCS Prelims 2010
AIDS/HIV virus is a type of
A. DNA virus
B. RNA virus
C. Either DNA or RNA virus
D. Both DNA and RNA virus
Explanation
Why Correct: HIV is a retrovirus with single-stranded RNA as its genetic material, which uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into DNA during its replication cycle.
Distractor Analysis: DNA viruses contain DNA as their genetic material throughout their lifecycle (e.g., herpesvirus, adenovirus). No virus contains both DNA and RNA simultaneously as genetic material. The RNA-to-DNA conversion occurs during replication but does not change HIV's fundamental classification as an RNA virus.
Takeaway: Retroviruses integrate their DNA copy (provirus) into the host genome using integrase enzyme, creating latent infections that evade immune detection and complicate treatment strategies.
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Q.16
WBCS Prelims 2009
Iodine is administered to patients suffering from
A. Goitre
B. Night blindness
C. Ricket
D. Rheumatism
Explanation
Why Correct: Iodine deficiency impairs thyroid hormone synthesis, causing compensatory thyroid gland enlargement known as goitre.
Distractor Analysis: Night blindness involves vitamin A deficiency affecting retinal rhodopsin. Rickets results from vitamin D deficiency causing defective bone mineralization. Rheumatism describes various painful joint and muscle conditions with diverse etiologies.
Takeaway: Iodized salt typically contains potassium iodate at 15-30 ppm iodine, providing approximately 15-30 mcg iodine per gram.
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Q.17
WBCS Prelims 2009
Malaria Parasite can best be obtained from blood of its patient
A. One hour before rise of temperature
B. Five hours after temperature
C. When temperature rise with rigor
D. Any time
Explanation
Why Correct: Malaria parasites (Plasmodium) are most abundant in peripheral blood during the febrile paroxysm, when temperature rises with chills and rigor, as this coincides with the rupture of infected red blood cells and release of merozoites.
Distractor Analysis: One hour before rise of temperature corresponds to the late trophozoite or schizont stage when parasites are still inside red blood cells and less detectable. Five hours after temperature describes the post-febrile period when parasite density decreases as they invade new red blood cells. Any time is incorrect because parasite density fluctuates dramatically with the 48-72 hour erythrocytic cycle, making timing critical for blood smear diagnosis.
Takeaway: Different Plasmodium species have distinct fever patterns: P. vivax and P. ovale cause tertian fever every 48 hours, P. malariae causes quartan fever every 72 hours, and P. falciparum causes irregular or continuous fever.
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Q.18
WBCS Prelims 2008
The causative organism of malignant malaria in human being is
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malarie
D. Plasmodium ovale
Explanation
Why Correct: Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria with irregular fever cycles, cerebral complications, high mortality, and drug resistance.
Distractor Analysis: Plasmodium vivax causes benign tertian malaria with 48-hour fever cycles and hypnozoite liver stages. Plasmodium malariae causes quartan malaria with 72-hour cycles and chronic nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium ovale causes ovale tertian malaria with 48-hour cycles and milder symptoms.
Takeaway: Plasmodium falciparum shows banana-shaped gametocytes and causes sequestration in deep vasculature, leading to severe complications like cerebral malaria and blackwater fever.
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Q.19
WBCS Prelims 2008
Which of the following is not a stimulant?
A. Caffeine
B. Barbiturates (depressant)
C. Cocaine
D. Amphetamines
Explanation
Why Correct: Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants that slow brain activity, used as sedatives or for anesthesia, not stimulants.
Distractor Analysis: Caffeine is a mild stimulant found in coffee and tea. Cocaine is a powerful stimulant that increases dopamine levels. Amphetamines are synthetic stimulants used to treat ADHD and narcolepsy.
Takeaway: Common stimulants include nicotine, MDMA, and ephedrine, while depressants include benzodiazepines, alcohol, and opioids.
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Q.20
WBCS Prelims 2008
Most patients hospitalised for mental disorders suffer from
A. Neurosis
B. Depression
C. Hysteria
D. Schizophrenia
Explanation
Why Correct: Major depressive disorder accounts for the largest proportion of psychiatric hospitalizations globally, with WHO data showing it as the leading cause of disability worldwide.
Distractor Analysis: Neurosis refers to anxiety-based disorders that typically don't require hospitalization. Hysteria (conversion disorder) involves neurological symptoms without organic cause and rarely leads to extended hospitalization. Schizophrenia affects about 1% of the population and causes significant hospitalizations but at lower rates than mood disorders.
Takeaway: Among severe mental illnesses requiring hospitalization, bipolar disorder and schizophrenia have longer average stays, while depression has higher admission frequency.
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Q.21
WBCS Prelims 2008
Predisposing cause of a disease are referred to as
A. Ethnology
B. Ecology
C. Etiology
D. Environmental factors
Explanation
Why Correct: Etiology specifically studies the causes, origins, and predisposing factors of diseases, including genetic, environmental, and lifestyle contributors.
Distractor Analysis: Ethnology examines human cultures and ethnic groups, ecology studies interactions between organisms and their environment, and environmental factors represent one category of etiological agents but not the comprehensive study of disease causation.
Takeaway: Epidemiology focuses on disease patterns and spread in populations, while pathology studies disease mechanisms and structural changes in tissues.
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Q.22
WBCS Prelims 2008
The intermediate host of Leishmania donovani is
A. Sand fly
B. Tse-tse fly
C. Dragon fly
D. Anopheles mosquito
Explanation
Why Correct: Leishmania donovani, the parasite causing visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), uses female sand flies (Phlebotomus species) as its intermediate host, where the parasite develops into infective promastigotes before transmission to humans.
Distractor Analysis: Tse-tse flies transmit Trypanosoma brucei causing African sleeping sickness. Dragon flies are not medically significant disease vectors. Anopheles mosquitoes transmit Plasmodium parasites causing malaria.
Takeaway: Sand flies also transmit cutaneous leishmaniasis caused by Leishmania tropica, while Aedes mosquitoes transmit dengue, chikungunya, and Zika viruses.
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Q.23
WBCS Prelims 2008
The WISC-R test is
A. An individual test for adults
B. An individual test for children
C. A group test for children
D. A group test for adults
Explanation
Why Correct: WISC-R (Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised) is an individually administered intelligence test designed specifically for children aged 6 to 16 years, assessing verbal and performance abilities through one-on-one interaction with a trained examiner.
Distractor Analysis: WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) serves as the individual test for adults. Group intelligence tests like the Otis-Lennon School Ability Test assess multiple children simultaneously. Group tests for adults include the Wonderlic Personnel Test used in employment settings.
Takeaway: The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales represent another major individually administered intelligence test with versions spanning ages 2 to 85+, while Raven's Progressive Matrices provide a non-verbal group testing alternative.
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Q.24
WBCS Prelims 2008
Of the patients with the following diagnosis, which is most likely to voluntarily commence psychotherapy?
A. The patient with depressive reaction
B. The patient with anxiety disorder
C. The patient with phobia
D. The patient with personality disorder
Explanation
Why Correct: Patients with anxiety disorders typically experience distressing symptoms like panic, worry, and physical tension that motivate them to seek relief through psychotherapy.
Distractor Analysis: Depressive reactions often involve low motivation and hopelessness that reduce help-seeking. Phobias involve specific fears that patients may avoid rather than address. Personality disorders feature ingrained patterns that patients often perceive as ego-syntonic, reducing voluntary treatment initiation.
Takeaway: In clinical psychology, treatment-seeking behavior varies by disorder: psychotic disorders have the lowest voluntary initiation rates, while anxiety and adjustment disorders have the highest.
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Q.25
WBCS Prelims 2007
A virion is
A. Infective particle of virus
B. Infective particle of bacteriophage
C. Infective stage of virus
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: A virion is the complete, infectious viral particle outside a host cell, comprising nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) enclosed within a protein capsid, and sometimes an outer lipid envelope derived from the host membrane.
Distractor Analysis: Infective particle of bacteriophage specifically describes virions that infect bacteria, which are a subset of all viruses. Infective stage of virus is an imprecise term that could refer to any phase of viral replication, not solely the extracellular particle.
Takeaway: Bacteriophages are viruses that exclusively infect bacterial cells, and their virions often feature complex structures like tail fibers and baseplates for precise attachment to bacterial surfaces.
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Q.26
WBCS Prelims 2007
The Kala-azar disease in man is spread by the bite of a
A. Culex mosquito
B. Phlebotomus sand-fly
C. Climex bed-bug
D. Sarcoptes mite
Explanation
Why Correct: Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) transmits exclusively through the bite of female Phlebotomus sand-flies infected with Leishmania donovani parasites.
Distractor Analysis: Culex mosquitoes transmit filariasis and Japanese encephalitis. Cimex lectularius (bed bugs) cause skin irritation but not systemic disease. Sarcoptes scabiei mites cause scabies through skin burrowing, not biting.
Takeaway: Anopheles mosquitoes transmit malaria, while Aedes mosquitoes transmit dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever.
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Q.27
WBCS Prelims 2007
A plant virus causing disease of the vegetables:
A. Tobacco Mosaic virus
B. Cauliflower Mosaic virus
C. Adenovirus
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Cauliflower Mosaic virus specifically infects cruciferous vegetables like cauliflower, cabbage, and broccoli, causing mosaic patterns and stunted growth.
Distractor Analysis: Tobacco Mosaic virus primarily affects tobacco and solanaceous plants like tomatoes, not typical vegetables. Adenoviruses infect animals and humans, causing respiratory and eye infections, not plants. None of the above is incorrect because Cauliflower Mosaic virus is a valid plant virus affecting vegetables.
Takeaway: Plant viruses often have host-specific names indicating their primary host—Tobacco Mosaic virus for tobacco, Tomato Spotted Wilt virus for tomatoes, and Cucumber Mosaic virus for cucurbits.
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Q.28
WBCS Prelims 2006
A viral disease is
A. Cancer
B. Leukemia
C. Typhoid
D. Yellow Fever
Explanation
Why Correct: Yellow Fever is caused by the Yellow Fever virus, transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, and causes fever, jaundice, and bleeding.
Distractor Analysis: Cancer and Leukemia are non-communicable diseases involving uncontrolled cell growth, not caused by pathogens. Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused by Salmonella typhi, transmitted through contaminated food/water.
Takeaway: Other viral diseases include Rabies (Lyssavirus), Influenza (Orthomyxovirus), and Dengue (Flavivirus).
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Q.29
WBCS Prelims 2003
Septicemia is
A. Food poisoning
B. Blood poisoning
C. Mental disorder
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Septicemia is bloodstream infection where bacteria or their toxins circulate in the blood, causing systemic inflammatory response.
Distractor Analysis: Food poisoning results from ingesting contaminated food, causing gastrointestinal symptoms. Mental disorders involve psychological or behavioral patterns causing distress.
Takeaway: Sepsis is the body's extreme response to infection, while septic shock involves dangerously low blood pressure and organ failure despite adequate fluid resuscitation.
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Q.30
WBCS Prelims 2003
Malaria is caused by
A. Plasmodium
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Cuiex mosquito
D. Bad air
Explanation
Why Correct: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium, transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Distractor Analysis: Anopheles mosquitoes are the vector that transmits Plasmodium parasites, not the direct cause. Culex mosquitoes transmit other diseases like filariasis and Japanese encephalitis. 'Bad air' (miasma theory) was a historical misconception about malaria's origin before the discovery of the parasite.
Takeaway: Different mosquito species transmit different diseases: Aedes transmits dengue and chikungunya, Culex transmits filariasis and Japanese encephalitis, and Anopheles transmits malaria.
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Q.31
WBCS Prelims 2002
Majority of animal viruses contain
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. RNA and DNA
D. None of DNA
Explanation
Why Correct: Most animal viruses use RNA as their genetic material, including major families like retroviruses, coronaviruses, influenza viruses, and picornaviruses.
Distractor Analysis: DNA viruses infect animals but are less common, including herpesviruses, adenoviruses, and poxviruses. No virus contains both RNA and DNA simultaneously as genetic material. "None of DNA" is incorrect since animal DNA viruses do exist.
Takeaway: Among all viruses, RNA viruses dominate animal infections, while DNA viruses are more common in bacteria and archaea.
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Q.32
WBCS Prelims 2002
Which of the following is an infectious bacterial disease?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Diphtheria
C. Influenza
D. Measles
Explanation
Why Correct: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a gram-positive bacterium that produces a toxin affecting mucous membranes.
Distractor Analysis: Conjunctivitis can be bacterial, viral, or allergic, with bacterial forms caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus species. Influenza is a viral respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. Measles is a highly contagious viral disease caused by the measles virus.
Takeaway: Other important bacterial diseases include tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), cholera (Vibrio cholerae), and typhoid (Salmonella typhi).
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Q.33
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2023
Which of the following is a water-borne disease?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Typhoid
C. Malaria
D. Diphtheria
Explanation
Why Correct: Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi, transmitted through contaminated water or food, making it a classic water-borne disease.
Distractor Analysis: Tuberculosis is an airborne bacterial infection of the lungs. Malaria is a mosquito-borne parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium species. Diphtheria is an airborne bacterial infection affecting the respiratory tract.
Takeaway: Common water-borne diseases include cholera, typhoid, hepatitis A, and dysentery. Remember that vector-borne diseases like malaria and dengue are transmitted by insects, not water.
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Q.34
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2023
Which mosquito is the carrier of malaria?
A. Aedes mosquito
B. Culex mosquito
C. Anopheles mosquito
D. Asian tiger mosquito
Explanation
Why Correct: Malaria is transmitted exclusively by female Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite completes part of its life cycle in the mosquito and is injected into humans during a blood meal.
Distractor Analysis: Aedes mosquito transmits dengue, chikungunya, and Zika virus. Culex mosquito transmits filariasis and West Nile virus. Asian tiger mosquito (Aedes albopictus) transmits dengue and chikungunya.
Takeaway: Remember: Anopheles for malaria, Aedes for dengue, Culex for filariasis. This triad is frequently tested.
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Q.35
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2019
Carrier of Dengue disease is
A. Aedes Mosquito
B. Anopheles Mosquito
C. Culex Mosquito
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Dengue fever is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, primarily the female. This mosquito also carries chikungunya, Zika, and yellow fever viruses.
Distractor Analysis: Anopheles mosquito transmits malaria (Plasmodium parasite). Culex mosquito transmits filariasis (Wuchereria bancrofti) and Japanese encephalitis. None of the above is not applicable as Aedes is the correct vector.
Takeaway: Memorize: Malaria = Anopheles, Dengue = Aedes, Filariasis = Culex. Aedes breeds in clean water and bites during daytime.
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Q.36
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
Which one of the following is the hip and knee replacement robot?
A. Laprodoc
B. Robodoc
C. Neurodoc
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Robodoc is a robotic surgical system designed for hip and knee replacement surgeries. It assists surgeons in precise bone preparation and implant placement.
Distractor Analysis: Laprodoc is not a standard medical robot for orthopedics; it may be confused with 'Laprobot' for laparoscopy. Neurodoc is used for neurosurgical procedures, not joint replacement. 'None of the above' is incorrect because Robodoc is indeed a hip and knee replacement robot.
Takeaway: Robodoc was the first surgical robot approved for orthopedic use. Remember key medical robots: Robodoc (orthopedics), Da Vinci (general surgery), NeuroArm (neurosurgery).
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Q.37
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
What is angiogram?
A. It is a medical diagnostic test.
B. It is a signal used in telegram office.
C. It is a signal used in radio.
D. It is a signal used in TV.
Explanation
Why Correct: Angiogram is a medical imaging technique used to visualize blood vessels, arteries, and veins to detect blockages, aneurysms, or other abnormalities. It is a diagnostic test, not a communication signal.
Distractor Analysis: The other options describe angiogram as a signal used in telegram, radio, or TV, which are incorrect because angiogram is exclusively a medical procedure, not a telecommunication signal.
Takeaway: "Angio" refers to vessels, "gram" means record. So angiogram = record of vessels. This root can help identify other terms like angiography, angioplasty.
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Q.38
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
Which one of the following is not medical diagnostic test?
A. Colonoscopy test
B. McNaughton test
C. Doppler test
D. C. T. Scan test
Explanation
Why Correct: McNaughton test is a legal standard for insanity defense, not a medical diagnostic test. It originates from the 1843 McNaughton case and is used in criminal law to determine mental responsibility.
Distractor Analysis: Colonoscopy is a medical test for colon examination. Doppler test uses ultrasound to measure blood flow. CT Scan is a medical imaging technique. All three are routine diagnostic procedures in medicine.
Takeaway: McNaughton test is a legal, not medical, concept. It is often confused with medical tests due to the word "test". Remember: medical tests are for physical conditions; McNaughton is for mental competence in court.
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Q.39
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
Zika virus disease transmitted through
A. Mosquito
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Bird
Explanation
Why Correct: Zika virus is primarily transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, especially Aedes aegypti. These mosquitoes bite during the day and are also vectors for dengue and chikungunya.
Distractor Analysis: Dogs and cats are not known to transmit Zika virus. Birds can carry some viruses like West Nile, but not Zika. Zika is an arbovirus (arthropod-borne).
Takeaway: Zika, dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever are all transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. Remember: 'Zika = Aedes'.
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Q.40
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
In which year the first human heart transplantation took place?
A. 1947
B. 1957
C. 1967
D. 1977
Explanation
Why Correct: The first successful human heart transplantation was performed by Dr. Christiaan Barnard on December 3, 1967 in Cape Town, South Africa.
Distractor Analysis: 1947 marks India's independence and the start of the Cold War, not a heart transplant. 1957 saw the first human kidney transplant (by Dr. Joseph Murray), not heart. 1977 was not a first; by then heart transplants had become more common.
Takeaway: The first human heart transplant is a landmark in medical history; remember it alongside the first kidney transplant (1954) and first liver transplant (1967).
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Q.41
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
What is the full form of AIDS?
A. Acess Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome
B. Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome
C. Acquired Immuno-Deficiency System
D. Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Sist
Explanation
Why Correct: AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome, a condition caused by HIV that progressively destroys the immune system.
Distractor Analysis: "Acess Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome" misspells "Acquired" (the term meaning not inherited) as "Acess". "Acquired Immuno-Deficiency System" incorrectly replaces "Syndrome" (a collection of symptoms) with "System". "Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Sist" is an incomplete misspelling of "Syndrome".
Takeaway: The full form is Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome; remember that "Acquired" means not present at birth and "Syndrome" means a group of symptoms.
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Q.42
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2018
Oral Glucose Tolerance test is used for determining
A. Blood Sugar
B. Blood Pressure
C. Obesity
D. Heart Attack
Explanation
Why Correct: The Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) measures the body's ability to metabolize glucose by tracking blood sugar levels after ingestion of a glucose solution. It is the standard diagnostic test for diabetes mellitus and impaired glucose tolerance.
Distractor Analysis: Blood pressure is measured by a sphygmomanometer, not OGTT. Obesity is assessed by BMI and waist circumference. Heart attack is diagnosed via ECG, cardiac enzymes, and symptoms.
Takeaway: OGTT is specifically for glucose metabolism assessment. Remember: Oral = Glucose ingestion; Tolerance = Body's handling of sugar.
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Q.43
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2012
Which of the following is most harmful for human being?
A. α-particles
B. β-particles
C. γ-rays
D. Light rays
Explanation
Why Correct: Gamma rays have the highest penetrating power and energy among the options. They can pass through the human body, damaging DNA and cells at the atomic level, leading to severe health effects like cancer and radiation sickness.
Distractor Analysis: Alpha particles are heavy and can be stopped by skin, so external exposure is less harmful; internal ingestion is dangerous. Beta particles have moderate penetration, can cause skin burns but are less penetrating than gamma. Light rays (visible light) are non-ionizing and do not cause radiation damage.
Takeaway: For radiation harm, remember: gamma > beta > alpha in terms of penetration, but alpha is most damaging if ingested. In external exposure, gamma is most harmful.
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Q.44
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2012
Which one of the following insects is the carrier of microfilaria?
A. Tabanus
B. Culex mosquito
C. Anopheles mosquito
D. Aedes mosquito
Explanation
Why Correct: Microfilaria, the larval form of filarial worms (e.g., Wuchereria bancrofti), is transmitted by the Culex mosquito, particularly Culex quinquefasciatus, causing lymphatic filariasis.
Distractor Analysis: Anopheles mosquito transmits malaria parasites (Plasmodium). Aedes mosquito transmits dengue, chikungunya, and Zika viruses. Tabanus (horsefly) is a vector for other diseases like tularemia but not microfilaria.
Takeaway: For filariasis vector, remember: Culex for filariasis, Anopheles for malaria, Aedes for dengue/zika. Culex breeds in stagnant polluted water.
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Q.45
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2012
Ascariasis spread through
A. Polluted air
B. Polluted water
C. Contaminated food
D. Bacteria
Explanation
Why Correct: Ascariasis is a helminth infection caused by Ascaris lumbricoides. Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route through ingestion of embryonated eggs, commonly from contaminated food, water, or soil. Contaminated food is a primary vector.Distractor Analysis: Polluted air transmits respiratory pathogens, not intestinal helminths. Polluted water can carry eggs but is less common than food as a direct source. Bacteria are a different kingdom of pathogens; ascariasis is helminthic.Takeaway: Soil-transmitted helminthiases like ascariasis are always associated with the fecal-oral route; prioritize contaminated food and unwashed produce in exam contexts.
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Q.46
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2012
The disease transmitted by blood
A. Cholera
B. Tuberculosis
C. AIDS
D. Polio
Explanation
Why Correct: AIDS is caused by HIV, which spreads through blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. Blood transfusion with infected blood is a major transmission route.
Distractor Analysis: Cholera is transmitted via contaminated water or food, not blood. Tuberculosis spreads through airborne droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Polio transmits through the fecal-oral route, not blood.
Takeaway: Blood-borne diseases include HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and malaria (via transfusion). Know transmission modes for common diseases.
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Q.47
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2012
Which disease-causing germ is borne by Anopheles Mosquito?
A. Dengue
B. Encephalitis
C. Malaria
D. Filaria
Explanation
Why Correct: Anopheles mosquitoes transmit the Plasmodium parasite, which causes malaria. Female Anopheles inject sporozoites during a blood meal.
Distractor Analysis: Dengue is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, not Anopheles. Encephalitis (Japanese encephalitis) is carried by Culex mosquitoes. Filaria (lymphatic filariasis) is transmitted by Culex and other mosquitoes, not Anopheles.
Takeaway: Remember vector-disease pairs: Anopheles -> Malaria; Aedes -> Dengue, Chikungunya, Zika; Culex -> Filariasis, Japanese Encephalitis.
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Q.48
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2011
Who discovered the germ of Malaria?
A. Lamarck
B. G. J. Mendel
C. De Vries
D. Ronald Ross
Explanation
Why Correct: Ronald Ross discovered that female Anopheles mosquitoes transmit malaria parasites (Plasmodium) to humans, earning the Nobel Prize in 1902. However, the malaria parasite itself was first identified by Alphonse Laveran in 1880. Among the given options, Ross is the only scientist directly associated with malaria research.
Distractor Analysis: Lamarck proposed inheritance of acquired characteristics. Mendel established laws of inheritance. De Vries formulated mutation theory. None contributed to malaria transmission or parasite discovery.
Takeaway: Distinguish between germ discovery (Laveran) and transmission (Ross). Common exam confusion: Ross is asked as the malaria discovery scientist in many textbooks, but for the specific germ, Laveran is correct.
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Q.49
WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2008
Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting because it plays a vital role in the synthesis of:
A. Thromboplastin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Prothrombin
D. All of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Vitamin K is a cofactor for the carboxylation of glutamic acid residues, enabling the synthesis of clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X in the liver. Prothrombin deficiency causes impaired clotting.
Distractor Analysis: Thromboplastin (tissue factor) is released from damaged tissue but its synthesis does not directly depend on vitamin K. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by thrombin; its synthesis is not vitamin K-dependent. "All of the above" is incorrect because only prothrombin among these directly requires vitamin K.
Takeaway: Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K, reducing these factors.
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Q.50
WBCS prelims 2024
Which of the following animals is natural reservoir of Nipah viruses?
A. Bats
B. Turtles
C. Migratory birds
D. Horses
Explanation
Why Correct: Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family, particularly Pteropus species, are the natural reservoir hosts of Nipah virus. They carry the virus without showing symptoms and can transmit it to humans through contaminated fruit or direct contact.
Distractor Analysis: Turtles are reptiles and are not known to harbor Nipah virus; they are not implicated in its transmission. Migratory birds can spread some avian viruses but are not reservoirs for Nipah. Horses can be infected by the related Hendra virus, but they are not the natural reservoir for Nipah virus.
Takeaway: Nipah virus outbreaks in South and Southeast Asia are often linked to date palm sap contaminated by bat saliva or urine. The virus can also spread from pigs to humans, as seen in Malaysia, where pigs act as amplifying hosts.
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Q.51
WBCS prelims 2024
Why antibiotics are not prescribed to kill viral infections?
A. Viruses take refuge in a cell organelle where antibiotics cannot reach.
B. Viruses neither have cell walls nor their own metabolic machinery that can be targeted by antibiotics.
C. Viruses mutate rapidly.
D. None of the above
Explanation
Why Correct: Antibiotics work by targeting specific bacterial structures or metabolic pathways, such as the cell wall (e.g., penicillin), protein synthesis (e.g., tetracyclines), or DNA replication (e.g., fluoroquinolones). Viruses lack these bacterial-specific targets; they do not have cell walls and rely entirely on the host cell's machinery for replication. Therefore, antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.
Distractor Analysis: Viruses do not 'take refuge' in a cell organelle; they infect host cells and use the host's ribosomes and enzymes for replication, but this is not the primary reason antibiotics fail. While viruses do mutate rapidly, this is a reason for vaccine development challenges and antiviral drug resistance, not the fundamental reason antibiotics are ineffective. The correct answer is the lack of bacterial-specific targets.
Takeaway: Antiviral drugs, unlike antibiotics, target viral-specific enzymes or proteins, such as neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir) for influenza or protease inhibitors for HIV. The misuse of antibiotics for viral infections contributes to antimicrobial resistance (AMR), a major public health concern.
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Q.52
WBCS prelims 2024
India has recently launched a nationwide campaign for free HPV vaccination. The goal of this vaccination is to combat
A. Cervical cancer in women
B. Prostate cancer in men
C. Lung cancer
D. Breast cancer
Explanation
Why Correct: The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine protects against high-risk HPV strains, particularly types 16 and 18, which cause approximately 70% of cervical cancer cases. Cervical cancer develops in the cervix, the lower part of the uterus, and HPV is the primary causative agent. India's nationwide campaign, launched on 28 February 2026, targets eligible 14-year-old girls with free vaccination at designated government health facilities.
Distractor Analysis: Prostate cancer in men is not caused by HPV; it is typically driven by androgens and age-related genetic mutations. Lung cancer is primarily associated with tobacco smoking, radon exposure, and air pollution, not HPV. Breast cancer has multiple risk factors including genetic mutations (BRCA1/BRCA2), hormonal influences, and age, but HPV is not a recognized causative agent for breast cancer.
Takeaway: India's 2026 campaign provides a voluntary, single-dose Gardasil-4 vaccine free of cost to eligible 14-year-old girls at designated government health facilities. The vaccine also protects against genital warts and other anogenital cancers caused by HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
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